Thanks Brian now I see how others interpret this scripture.brianj wrote: ↑January 8th, 2018, 9:49 pmWhen I read 132:44, I had a very distinct impression that a divorced woman who didn't break her vows can become married to a man who hasn't break his vows.janderich wrote: ↑January 8th, 2018, 7:14 pmSorry, but this doesn't provide me any more understanding. There are multiple ways to interpret these verses. Do you not want to explain it?Michelle wrote: ↑January 8th, 2018, 5:56 pmDoctrine and Covenants 132:41 And as ye have asked concerning adultery, verily, verily, I say unto you, if a man receiveth a wife in the new and everlasting covenant, and if she be with another man, and I have not appointed unto her by the holy anointing, she hath committed adultery and shall be destroyed.
42 If she be not in the new and everlasting covenant, and she be with another man, she has committed adultery.
43 And if her husband be with another woman, and he was under a vow, he hath broken his vow and hath committed adultery.
44 And if she hath not committed adultery, but is innocent and hath not broken her vow, and she knoweth it, and I reveal it unto you, my servant Joseph, then shall you have power, by the power of my Holy Priesthood, to take her and give her unto him that hath not committed adultery but hath been faithful; for he shall be made ruler over many.
Finding out about sins of my not-yet-ex really hurt, but the information was provided to assure me that I hadn't broken my vows. And, when I chose to follow the counsel to create a list of attributes I want in a wife, one of the things that quickly came up was "Did not cause her divorce." As long as I find that, I now feel comforted that we both will be living the higher law.
My problem is that this scripture has to do with polygamy which confuses the whole issue. Joseph was concerned about adultery since he was marrying multiple women (some already married per the law), and was also performing marriages in the same fashion. We might start in verse 37, "Abraham received concubines, and they bore him children; and it was accounted unto him for righteousness, because they were given unto him, and he abode in my law...". In verse 41 then, the scripture explains that if a wife be with another man, and I have not appointed unto her by the holy anointing, she hath committed adultery and shall be destroyed." Very well, what if another man has been appointed unto her by the holy anointing (whatever that means)? It then appears acceptable that she have multiple husbands. Verse 42 further addresses the point, "if she be not in the new and everlasting covenant, and she be with another man, she has committed adultery" but of course if she is under the new and everlasting covenant she may not have committed adultery.
In verse 43 we get into this term "vow". A husband can commit adultery if he is with another woman and was under "vow". It is unclear to me what this means. What is the "vow"? Is it strictly about marriage between one man and one woman? Clearly there are some exceptions since a man could be with multiple women and not commit adultery.
In verse 44 we read about a woman who has not committed adultery (as described above) and hath not broken her "vow" (whatever that means). If this be the case, Joseph can give "her unto him". This same terminology was used previously in verse 37, Abraham had multiple concubines and it was accounted righteousness because, "they were given unto him". It sounds to me like these scriptures are giving Joseph authority to marry men to multiple wives and marry women to multiple husbands under certain conditions. After all this is what he did.
Given the context, these scriptures are anything but straight forward. Perhaps they can be applied to monogamous relationships but I'm not sure.