You said
You ask "if all parties are informed". Currently -- are they? No, one of the things we use against the banks is the fact there was not full disclosure. This alone is enough to void the contract, because non disclosure is a form of fraud. People are getting their houses back as we speak even after being foreclosed, in Washington State, because of the intelligent work of a few individuals, and they do it through the court system using non disclosure as one of the major points of the argument, so don't tell me I don't understand fraud."how is that fraud? Fraud is defined as a form of deception. If all parties are informed about a transaction and voluntarily consent to it, it CANNOT be fraud, by the definition of the word fraud. So you are wrong by definition."