I've read the verse set in multiple languages and do not see it as the opposite as you say. It is quite clear to me the meaning and context of verse 30. I've gone so far as to investigate previous editions of the Book of Mormon, all sources agree. If you would, please provide the logic or citation behind your claim. I have looked at this with very open eyes and can only see one meaning to verse 30, polygamy is reserved for when the Lord commands.Kitkat wrote: ↑June 23rd, 2017, 9:55 pmAn invite to ask God His perspective on Jacob 2, it actually says the exact opposite you speak of, and we were shocked to learn the same once you read it in context. I'd post a link but google search is no longer working on this forum.BackBlast wrote: ↑June 21st, 2017, 3:18 pmPolygamy has a Godly purpose.
Jacob 2:30It seems that he recognizes it as a potentially legitimate strategy for fulfilling His purpose30 For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things.
Moses 1:39That does not mean that every instance of it's use comes from heaven.39 For behold, this is my work and my glory—to bring to pass the immortality and eternal life of man.
It has indeed been the subject of much prayer in my house, and the answers support my use of Jacob 2:30 here.