Having a bit of a math background, there is something that I don't understand. When you look at societies where polygamy is practiced, such as in Islam, you find that there are a few very rich successful men who enjoy harems of various sizes, and streets full of impoverished men who seek out harlots, because there are no women for them. In all of these societies women are abused property, and less successful men are losers."Of an immediate necessity is for the sake of widows and their deceased sealed husbands, these widows should be allowed to be received as a plural wife so that they can be joined to a good, noble and worthy husband while that husband is also allowed to be married to another woman to whom he can also be sealed for time and eternity."
I understand plural marriage being necessary, when there is a great surplus of worthy women and a great shortage of worthy men. It seems that while there are some differences in the birthrate between boys and girls, it is slight. I know that there are somewhat more women who live righteously than men, is there really the numbers there to justify men having many wives?
It is my understanding that the Lord only approves of plural marriage in special circumstances such as war, famine and other hardships where there is a great shortage of men, and a surplus of women.
So in regards to your thought above, shouldn't those worthy women look for the opportunity to marry worthy widowers, or single men of enough character to not be put off by that Mormon phenomenon of "Temple widow", and know that if he cares for his "temple widow" wife, things will work out in the hereafter, and he will have an eternal partner?
Regards,
George Clay